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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued an amendment to its directions on concentration risk for commercial banks. The amendments requires banks to country risk classifications as published by the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited (ECGC) when determining country exposure limits.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the Reserve Bank of India (commercial banks – treatment of wilful defaulters and large defaulters) - amendment directions, 2026. The directions prescribe: Classification timelines for wilful defaulters including mandating that if a wilful default is observed in the internal preliminary screening, a bank must complete the process of classification or declaring the borrower as a wilful defaulter within six months of the account being classified as a non-performing asset (NPA). Regulatory alignment stipulating that the NPA classification used to trigger this six-month timeline must be in accordance with the instructions regarding asset classification contained in the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Asset Classification, Provisioning and Income Recognition) Directions, 2026 . The amendment will come into force from April 1, 2027.

On April 27, 2026, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks – Credit Facilities) Second Amendment Directions, 2026 (RBI/2026-27/25 DOR.STR.REC.13/07-01-001/2026-27). The amendment modifies the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks – Credit Facilities) Directions, 2025, and is issued under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The amendment introduces four key modifications to the existing directions. First, paragraph 25(1) is amended to align asset classification of individual loan assets and provisioning requirements with the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Asset Classification, Provisioning and Income Recognition) Directions, 2026. Second, paragraph 84 is updated to clarify that project finance accounts may be classified as non-performing assets (NPA) at any time before actual debt service coverage ratio (DCCO) achievement, in accordance with the 2026 asset classification directions. Third, paragraph 132 is revised to reference both the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Capital Charge for Credit Risk – Standardised Approach) Directions, 2026 and the asset classification directions for risk weight and provisioning requirements. Finally, paragraph 172(3)(ii) is deleted in its entirety. These amendments apply to commercial banks in India and are designed to ensure consistency across the RBI's regulatory framework for credit facilities, asset classification, and capital requirements. The amendments become effective on April 1, 2027, providing commercial banks with a transition period to implement the necessary operational and compliance changes. **Reference:** Reserve Bank of India Notifications, April 27, 2026

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Credit Risk Management) - Second Amendment Directions, 2026. The directions prescribe: Unhedged foreign currency exposure (UFCE) and capital requirements including mandating that banks assess and monitor the UFCE of entities and maintain adequate capital, stipulating an incremental capital requirement involving a 25 percentage point increase in the risk weight for potential loss/EBID exceeding 75 percent, and requiring these incremental capital requirements to be calculated at least on a quarterly basis. New entity and data-deficient UFCE guidelines specifying that for projects under implementation and new entities, incremental capital requirements must be based on the projected average annual EBID for the first three years of commercial operations, and mandating a conservative placement into the highest risk bucket (a 25 percentage point increase in risk weight) when sufficient data to assess UFCE is unavailable. Country risk classification allowing banks to use the seven-category country classification provided by the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd (ECGC) until they transition to an internal rating system. Working capital loan (WCL) repayment structures granting banks, consortia, or syndicates the discretion to stipulate WCL repayment in installments or via bullet repayment, and permitting the rollover of WCLs at the borrower's request, subject to compliance with asset classification and stressed asset resolution directions. The amendments will come into force from April 1, 2027.

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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued the "Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Asset Classification, Provisioning and Income Recognition) Directions, 2026." The directions prescribe: Implementation of the Expected Credit Loss (ECL) framework mandating banks to adopt a forward-looking provisioning approach by classifying financial instruments into a "three-stage" approach: Stage 1 for assets with no significant increase in credit risk (SICR) requiring a 12-month ECL; Stage 2 for assets with SICR requiring a lifetime ECL; and Stage 3 for credit-impaired assets also requiring a lifetime ECL. Stage 1 for assets with no significant increase in credit risk (SICR) requiring a 12-month ECL; Stage 2 for assets with SICR requiring a lifetime ECL; and Stage 3 for credit-impaired assets also requiring a lifetime ECL. Asset classification and income recognition retaining the 90-day overdue standard for Non-Performing Asset (NPA) classification while adopting the effective interest rate (EIR) method for measuring financial assets at amortized cost and recognizing interest income. Fair valuation and transition arrangements requiring banks to fair value their entire loan portfolio on the transition date of April 1, 2027, adjusting the difference against retained earnings, and permitting a phased transitional adjustment to Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital over a period ending March 31, 2031. Prudential floors and specific provisioning establishing stage-wise and product-wise prudential floors that act as regulatory backstops for ECL computations, and requiring additional provisions for specific cases like fraud, foreign exchange fluctuations, and willful defaulters. Model risk management and governance instituting a three-tier model risk management framework encompassing front-line operations, risk management and compliance, and internal audit, while outlining broad principles for model selection, documentation, validation, and the incorporation of macroeconomic variables. The directions will come into force on April 1, 2027.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Capital Charge for Credit Risk - Standardised Approach) Directions, 2026. The directions prescribe: Sovereign and public sector exposures including mandating a 0 percent risk weight for domestic sovereign exposures such as the central government and the RBI, while assigning a 20 percent risk weight to claims guaranteed by state governments. Corporate and NBFC parameters stipulating that unrated claims on corporates and NBFCs with an aggregate exposure from the banking system exceeding INR 5,000,000,000 (USD 60,000,000) will attract a risk weight of 150 percent, and mandating that NBFC-CICs shall always be risk weighted at 100 percent. Retail and MSME exposure specifications requiring that claims included in the regulatory retail portfolio receive a 75 percent risk weight, provided the maximum aggregated exposure to one counterparty does not exceed the absolute threshold of INR 100,000,000 (USD 1,200,000), and assigning a 125 percent risk weight to personal loans and non-transactor credit card receivables excluded from this portfolio. Unrated micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) exposures meeting retail criteria are weighted at 75 percent, while other unrated MSME exposures not meeting the criteria attract 85 percent. Real estate and NPA rules establishing specific risk weights based on loan-to-value (LTV) ratios for housing loans to individuals , assigning risk weights of 100 percent or 150 percent for commercial real estate (ADC) exposures, and stipulating that the unsecured portion of non-performing assets (NPAs) attracts a 150 percent risk weight if specific provisions are less than 20 percent of the outstanding amount. Credit risk mitigation (CRM) and external ratings mandating that banks use the comprehensive approach with standard supervisory haircuts for collateralized transactions, requiring an 8 percent standard supervisory haircut for currency mismatches between exposure and collateral , and requiring banks to adjust base risk weights based on the average one-year observed default rate (ODR) published by chosen eligible credit rating agencies (ECRAs). The directions will come into effect from April 1, 2027.

On April 27, 2026, the National Bank of Ukraine (NBU) clarified procedures for payment service providers executing payment instructions in foreign currency and banking metals. The NBU introduced several regulatory refinements through Board Resolution No. 41 of April 23, 2026. These changes address the implementation of new commission fee codes for payment service providers handling cross-border fund transfers in foreign currency or banking metals. The regulator enhanced procedures for payment service providers to enforce collection of tax debt in national currency when debtors hold funds in foreign currency accounts. Additionally, the NBU mandated that payment service providers receiving funds must inform their users of each credit to their accounts following receipt. The resolution amends the Regulation on the Procedure for Payment Service Providers to Execute Payment Instructions in Foreign Currency and Banking Metals. Payment service providers, including banks and other entities offering payment services, must comply with these new requirements. The changes take effect on April 28, 2026. Payment service providers should review the updated procedures to ensure compliance with the new commission fee coding system, enhanced debt collection mechanisms, and mandatory user notification requirements for foreign currency and banking metal transactions. **Reference:** National Bank of Ukraine Board Resolution No. 41 of April 23, 2026, "On Approval of Amendments to the Regulation on the Procedure for Payment Service Providers to Execute Payment Instructions in Foreign Currency and Banking Metals"

The Central Bank of the Russian Federation (CBR) has published multiple draft regulatory acts for public consultation on its official website. The CBR is seeking comments and proposals on several key normative documents across banking, anti-money laundering, and securities regulation. The draft acts under consultation include: a directive on credit reserve formation procedures for multi-apartment residential buildings and other real estate objects; a regulation on information disclosure by issuers of equity securities; amendments to identification requirements for organisations conducting financial operations in relation to anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing (AML/CTF) compliance; requirements for targeted internal control rules and qualifications for designated compliance officers in AML/CTF-regulated entities; amendments to CBR Regulation No. 842-P dated September 23, 2024; amendments to CBR Directive No. 7044-U dated April 14, 2025; amendments to CBR Directive No. 6379-U dated March 23, 2023; and requirements for qualified investor status recognition and maintenance of a qualified investor registry. The CBR has established staggered comment deadlines ranging from April 29, 2026 to May 15, 2026. Stakeholders are required to submit comments and proposals to designated CBR email addresses corresponding to each draft act. The CBR will conduct regulatory impact assessments and corruption risk analyses on all proposed regulations. A recommended template for submitting comments is available on the CBR website. The CBR's 2026 regulatory preparation plan is also publicly available, and all draft documents are accessible through the Federal Portal of Draft Regulatory Acts (regulation.gov.ru).

On April 27, 2026, the Portuguese parliament enacted Law No. 14/2026, which reinforces the right to be forgotten and consumer protections in credit-related insurance contracts. The law amends three existing legislative instruments: Law No. 75/2021 concerning access to credit and insurance for individuals who have overcome or mitigated serious health risks or disabilities. Decree-Law No. 74-A/2017 governing residential mortgage credit contracts. Decree-Law No. 384/2007 establishing insurer notification obligations and a central registry for life insurance contracts. The law extends the right to be forgotten to both residential mortgage credit and consumer credit, as well as mandatory and optional insurance associated with these credits. Individuals who have overcome or mitigated serious health risks or disabilities are protected from discrimination in credit access and insurance contracting.

On April 28, 2026, Argentina's National Securities Commission issued General Resolution No. 1131, introducing a comprehensive reform of its investigation and disciplinary procedures under Title XIII of its regulatory framework. The changes form part of an ongoing effort to modernize supervision, improve procedural efficiency, and align regulatory processes with digital administrative practices. The resolution introduces targeted reforms across investigation and enforcement procedures, including changes to complaint handling, summary proceedings and the publication of outcomes. A key procedural change is the introduction of a mandatory complaint ratification requirement, under which complaints must be confirmed via CNV’s digital channels between four and twenty business days after submission or will be deemed not filed. The framework also expands the use of digital tools in supervisory processes. Informational and testimonial hearings may now be conducted via video conference where justified, with formal requirements updated to reflect modern recording and documentation practices. The regulation removes outdated procedural requirements linked to legacy technologies and standardizes the recording and documentation of hearings. Further reforms target efficiency in sanctioning procedures. The resolution simplifies abbreviated summary proceedings by removing duplicative ratification requirements where defendants are represented at preliminary hearings. It also introduces defined timelines for enforcement outcomes, including a requirement to issue final sanctioning decisions within thirty (30) business days following the preliminary hearing in abbreviated proceedings. In parallel, CNV updates the “Grid of Offending Conducts” used to determine eligibility for abbreviated procedures, supporting a more standardized and predictable enforcement framework. The update also introduces enhanced transparency measures. CNV will publish key procedural decisions, including the initiation and conclusion of summary proceedings, exclusions of investigated parties and preventive suspensions, on its website following notification. Taken together, the reforms signal a shift toward a more digital, streamlined and transparent enforcement model, with implications for regulated entities in terms of procedural timelines, engagement with investigations and visibility of supervisory actions. The resolution enters into force on April 30, 2026, the day following its publication in the Official Gazette.

On April 27, 2026, the Executive Service of the Commission for the Prevention of Money Laundering and Monetary Offences (Sepblac) published a guide on applying simplified customer due diligence measures in anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing (AML/CTF). The guide addresses recent international standards and European regulatory developments, serving two primary objectives. First, to promote consistent and prudent application of simplified customer due diligence measures by providing practical criteria and guidance to obliged entities. Second, to facilitate a smooth transition to the new European AML/CTF regulatory framework, mainly Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 , which will become directly applicable from July 2027. Obliged entities should refer to the guide when determining whether simplified due diligence measures are appropriate for specific customers or business relationships, ensuring compliance with both current Spanish requirements and forthcoming European standards.

On April 27, 2026, the Council of the European Union decided to prolong its restrictive measures against Myanmar for a further 12 months, extending them until April 30, 2027. The decision was taken following an annual review of the sanctions regime and in response to the continuing grave situation in Myanmar, including actions undermining democracy and serious human rights violations.

On April 28, 2026, the Bank of Tanzania designated eight financial institutions as Market Makers for the Electronic Matching System (EMS) in the Interbank Foreign Exchange Market. The designated Market Makers are: ABSA Bank Tanzania Limited. Citibank Tanzania Limited. CRDB Bank Plc. Exim Bank Tanzania Limited. National Bank of Commerce Limited. NMB Bank Plc. Stanbic Bank Tanzania Limited. Standard Chartered Bank Tanzania Limited. The designation follows the issuance of the Guidelines on the Electronic Matching System (EMS), 2026 . The Bank of Tanzania established this framework to support liquidity, orderly market conduct, and efficient price discovery in the Interbank Foreign Exchange Market. Market Makers are required to continuously post two-way quotes and associated volumes throughout trading hours to fulfil their designated role. All Electronic Matching System participants, including commercial banks and non-bank institutions, have been notified of these appointments and are advised to take the designation into account in their market operations. The appointment is effective immediately, and Market Makers must comply with their obligations under the EMS framework.

On April 27, 2026, the US Department of the Treasury announced it has initiated a comprehensive review of certified Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) to identify potential violations of applicable law and regulatory requirements. The review aims to ensure that CDFIs, which provide credit and other financial services to underserved populations, receiving federal assistance act as proper stewards of taxpayer funds, and abstain from misuse of funds or engaging in predatory practices. The review forms part of the Department of the Treasury's broader efforts to strengthen oversight of federal grant programs, promote accountability and prevent abuse of CDFI fund assistance. As part of the review, the Department of the Treasury is assessing whether CDFIs are complying with applicable legal requirements and the terms of CDFI fund assistance agreements. The assessment will determine whether CDFIs have violated applicable law or CDFI requirements.

On 27 April 2026, the Federal Court ordered Money3 Loans Pty Ltd (Money3) to pay penalties of AU$1.55 million for breaching responsible lending obligations under Australian financial services laws. The Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC) brought proceedings against Money3, following the lender's failures to comply with responsible lending requirements when providing car finance to vulnerable consumers. The Court found that Money3 breached its responsible lending obligations in relation to five loans entered into between May 2019 and February 2021. Specifically, Money3 failed to make reasonable inquiries about or verify borrowers' living expenses based on bank statement transaction data it held.

On April 27, 2026, the Central Bank of Paraguay (BCP) announced the rebranding of the Sistema de Pagos del Paraguay (SIPAP) as “SIP”, marking a new phase in the modernization of the country’s payments infrastructure. The rebrand reflects the evolution of the system into a more agile, interoperable, secure and user-centric platform aligned with the needs of the digital economy. The rebranding to SIP is accompanied by further technological enhancements to expand functionality and interoperability. The BCP confirmed that a QR Hub, designed to standardize and interconnect QR code payments across financial institutions and digital wallets, will enter production in May 2026. This is expected to enable fully interoperable, instant mobile payments across the ecosystem. In addition, the central bank plans to launch a digital savings deposit certificate (CDA-d) in August 2026, expanding the range of financial instruments available within the electronic payments system. Medium-term developments include the introduction of contactless payments and cross-border transfer capabilities to support regional integration. The update forms part of the BCP’s broader strategy to promote financial inclusion, innovation and efficiency by strengthening national payments infrastructure and expanding access to digital financial services.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has released a draft circular for public comments regarding the handling of clients' unpaid securities by trading members (TM) and clearing members (CM). The draft circular prescribes: Maximum funding period specifications including a mandate that TMs may allow clients up to five trading days from the pay-out date to fulfill payment obligations for purchased securities. It requires TMs to formulate a policy indicating this maximum funding period, noting that TMs may require payment in a shorter duration at their discretion. Pledge creation and re-pledging rules requiring that unpaid securities remain in the client's demat account but be pledged to a separate "client unpaid securities pledgee account (CUSPA)" opened by the TM. It stipulates that if the TM and CM are separate entities and the TM has not met its fund obligations toward the CM, the unpaid securities shall be re-pledged to a separate CUSPA opened by the CM. Pledge release and partial release timelines mandating that pledges must be released on the same day if a client fulfills their payment obligation before 5pm, or before 5pm on the next trading day if the payment is received after the cutoff time. It also requires TMs to conduct a daily assessment of the maximum pledge value and release any excess quantity of pledged securities on the same day. Liquidation procedures and auto-release mechanisms stating that if a client fails to pay, the TM must provide at least one day's notice before invoking the pledge and liquidating the unpaid securities. It further mandates that if a pledge is neither invoked nor released within five trading days after pay-out, depositories will automatically release the pledge at the end of the next trading day. Exceptional extension provisions allowing TMs/CMs to request a pledge extension of up to one additional calendar week if unpaid securities cannot be liquidated within five trading days due to lower circuit conditions, trading halts, or other valid reasons beyond their control. Feedback may be submitted via this link or by email to consultationMIRSD@sebi.gov.in by May 15, 2026.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has released a consultation paper and draft circular regarding the review of variable net worth requirements for stock brokers. The draft circular prescribes: Calculation methodology revisions including shifting away from calculating variable net worth based on retained client cash balances, as the new upstreaming framework mandates that client funds be transferred to clearing corporations, leaving brokers with minimal retained cash. Average credit balance requirements mandating that the variable net worth calculation include an amount equal to 10 percent of the average credit balance of all clients over the previous six months across all segments and exchanges. Direct active client parameters requiring a variable net worth addition of INR 5,000,000 (US$ 60,000) for brokers with more than 10,000 and up to 50,000 active direct clients , and stipulating a further INR 5,000,000 (US$ 60,000) for every additional 50,000 active direct clients or part thereof. Authorised Person (AP) client parameters stipulating additional net worth requirements of INR 500,000 (US$ 6,000) for up to 2,500 AP clients, INR 2,500,000 (US$ 30,000) for more than 2,500 and up to 10,000 AP clients, and INR 5,000,000 (US$ 60,000) for every subsequent 10,000 active AP clients or part thereof. Feedback may be submitted via this link or by email to consultationMIRSD@sebi.gov.in by May 15, 2026.

On April 27, 2026, Rio Grande do Sul established comprehensive restrictions on advertising for sports betting platforms in the state. Law No. 16.508  was published in the Official State Gazette, the law aims to protect consumers, safeguard children and adolescents, support vulnerable individuals, and prevent pathological gambling and over-indebtedness. It applies definitions established in Federal Law No. 14.790 and Federal Law No. 13.756 . Key provisions include: Mandatory warning phrases displayed prominently in advertisements, with minimum font size equivalent to 15 percent of total advertisement area. Required warnings state: "Gambling can cause addiction and harm to you and your family," "Gambling can lead to over-indebtedness," and "Participation by minors under 18 years of age is prohibited." Advertisements must include information about gambling addiction risks and treatment channels. Audiovisual advertising on free-to-air television, pay television, streaming platforms, and radio is restricted to 21:00 to 06:00 hours. Advertising is prohibited near schools, daycare centres, and educational institutions. Content directed at minors through animations, mascots, fictional characters, or artificial intelligence is prohibited. Sports sponsorships by betting platforms are limited to simple brand identification on uniforms and equipment. The Consumer Protection Superintendency (PROCON-RS) enforces the legislation. Penalties include warnings, fines under the Consumer Protection Code, counter-advertising requirements, temporary advertising suspension (30 to 180 days), and potential cancellation of state registration for repeated offenses. Companies operating in Rio Grande do Sul have 120 days from publication to comply with the new requirements. Law No 16.508 came into effect immediately upon publication.

On April 27, 2026, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) consulted on proposed changes to rules governing information sharing during UK equity initial public offerings (IPOs). The consultation (CP26/14) includes proposals on: Amending COBS 11A.1.4FR to remove the 7-day waiting period between the publication of an approved registration document/prospectus and connected research. Removing COBS 11A.1.4BR - COBS 11A.1.4ER which mandate that syndicate banks intending to publish connected IPO research share the same information with a range of unconnected analysts as they do with their own research analysts. Responses can be made through email to cp26-14@fca.org.u k or via the online response form by the consultation deadline of May 29, 2026.

On April 27, 2026, the Financial Intelligence Analysis Unit (FIAU) issued a revised version of the Implementing Procedures Part I, introducing amendments to beneficial owner identification requirements and employee screening obligations. The revised procedures restructure employee screening and record-keeping obligations. Previously, subject persons were mandated to obtain and retain police conduct certificates for officers and employees handling relevant activity or relevant financial business, with retention required for up to five years following employment termination. The amendments replace this mandatory requirement with a risk-based approach. Subject persons must periodically assess whether employees demonstrate good repute, honesty, and integrity both upon recruitment and on an ongoing basis. Police conduct certificates are no longer mandatory; subject persons may adopt alternative screening measures proportionate to their circumstances. However, subject persons must maintain written records documenting the screening process undertaken, including methodology, responsible parties, and conclusions regarding employee integrity. These changes align the guidance with data protection principles and apply to all subject persons under Malta's anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing (AML/CTF) regime.

On April 27, 2026, Turkey's Competition Authority (Rekabet Kurumu) announced the initiation of a comprehensive sector investigation into the artificial intelligence (AI) ecosystem. The investigation responds to rapid developments in AI that have created a new competitive landscape centred around data, computing power and platform ecosystems. The Competition Authority identified that the transformation driven by AI development has fundamentally redefined how competition is formed, sustained and determined within markets. The sector investigation aims to evaluate the effects of this transformation on markets from a holistic perspective and to identify emerging competition risks in a timely manner. The inquiry will examine how the AI ecosystem is structured, the competitive dynamics at play and potential regulatory implications arising from this new market configuration. This investigation reflects broader European and international regulatory attention to AI governance. It complements concurrent work by other authorities, including the European Data Protection Board's (EDPB) ongoing guidance development on personal data processing for scientific research purposes and the United Kingdom's Digital Regulation Cooperation Forum's (DRCF) study on agentic AI systems. The Competition Authority's focus on competition law aspects of AI development addresses gaps in understanding how market concentration, data access and platform dominance may evolve within AI-driven markets. The investigation will inform potential future regulatory responses and competition enforcement priorities in Turkey's AI sector.

On April 27, 2026, Finland's ministerial working group on societal reform outlined actions to strengthen digital sovereignty through the end of the current government term. Digital sovereignty refers to the capacity to govern digital infrastructure, data and technologies without excessive dependence on actors outside the European Union. Finland's approach emphasises independence in making autonomous technological and economic choices within an open global environment, while ensuring critical digital services (including the banking and payments sector) remain operational under all circumstances. The roadmap prioritises mapping European alternatives, identifying critical dependencies and skills gaps, preparing guidance and planning contingency measures to safeguard service continuity. The working group will also evaluate opportunities for Nordic cooperation and national and European financing mechanisms supporting the development of digital sovereignty. The roadmap emphasises service continuity, portability, open interfaces and exit capabilities for critical services. Public administration and other critical societal actors will improve their identification of vendor dependencies, assess technological risks and prepare for disruption and crisis scenarios. Work will proceed in phases, with particular focus on critical services and platform-level technologies where dependencies are most significant. It was emphasised that digital independence must be complemented by cyber resilience, noting that cyber attacks are daily occurrences requiring 24/7 preparedness and urgent implementation of Finland's national cybersecurity strategy.

On April 27, 2026, the Central Bank of Russia (CBR) announced updates to its approach for conducting fine-tuning auctions, effective from May 13, 2026, the first day of the May required reserve averaging period. The adjustment aims to enhance the efficiency of the CBR's monetary policy operational procedure and reduce the average deviation of money market rates from the key rate. Under the revised approach, the CBR will consider both the banking sector's liquidity requirements and the observed deviation of RUONIA (Russian Overnight Index Average) from the key rate when determining fine-tuning auction frequency. Where the spread between RUONIA and the key rate is steady and considerable, fine-tuning auctions may be held more frequently. However, as banks adapt to the new approach and their expectations regarding future RUONIA dynamics and key rate levels converge, the need for these operations is expected to decline. For fine-tuning deposit auctions, the CBR will set limits based on the total amount of excess liquidity in banks' accounts with the central bank. On the final day of each averaging period, when the required reserve averaging mechanism cannot fully offset temporary imbalances between liquidity demand and supply, the CBR will continue conducting fine-tuning auctions to limit money market rate fluctuations, consistent with existing practice. The changes apply to all banks participating in the CBR's fine-tuning operations.

On April 27, 2026, the Central Bank of Russia (CBR) announced a revised approach to provisioning for loans issued for apartment construction projects, designed to enhance risk sensitivity in banks' assessment methodologies. The new framework will apply to loans issued at any stage of project implementation, spanning from the acquisition of land rights and approval of housing development parameters through to the sale of apartments in completed buildings. Under this approach, banks will assess risk by considering the project lifecycle stages, with particular emphasis on compliance with deadlines for urban planning and project documentation approval, construction timelines, sales schedules and debt repayment obligations. The framework will also account for instalment plans offered by developers to shared construction participants. The CBR designed this system to enable a comprehensive evaluation of the factors determining construction project success and the capacity of project loans to be repaid. By incorporating multiple project lifecycle variables, the framework aims to provide a more nuanced and accurate risk assessment than previous methodologies. The updated provisioning approach is planned to become effective on October 1, 2027. The framework will apply mandatorily to loan tranches issued for projects where construction has not yet commenced, as well as to loans issued after the ordinance comes into force. Banks operating in the Russian market will need to align their provisioning practices with these requirements by the effective date.

On April 23, 2026, the Belgian Financial Services and Markets Authority (FSMA) published a newsletter for banking and investment service providers on the application of the banking oath. From July 15, 2026, the banking oath will apply to persons active within banking and investment services agents of a credit institution, including: All persons in charge of effective management. The responsible managers (those who exercise supervision or control over any other persons within the agent concerned who directly participate in the conduct of banking activities or the provision of banking services). Banking and investment service agents registered with the FSMA as natural persons. Any other persons within the agent concerned who directly participate in the conduct of banking activities or the provision of banking services. From July 15, 2026, banking service providers will be required to: Take the banking oath. Within six months, banking service providers who are already working with a banking and investment services agent as at July 15, 2026 must therefore take the oath by January 15, 2027 at the latest. Those who do not take up their post until after July 15, 2026 must take the oath within six months of the date they actually take up their post. Comply with the ethical rules known as the “ individual rules of conduct ”. Credit institutions are required to provide the FSMA with a list of banking service providers active within their organisation or within their banking and investment service agents every six months. The FSMA has published a series of FAQs on its website to help relevant stakeholders better understand what the banker’s oath entails. Further questions can be sent to the FSMA’s Banking Oath Management unit via email at sbe@fsma.be .

On April 24, 2026, the French Financial Markets Authority (AMF) published a summary of its Operational and Thematic Supervision of Practices (SPOT) inspections, which examined the digital client journey at four investment services providers in France. Conducted between January 1, 2023 and May 31, 2025, the inspections assessed how institutions present information to retail investors across websites, applications and branches — from initial account opening through to order placement. The summary outlines the findings of the inspections, the good and poor practices observed, and the regulatory framework on which the AMF based the inspections. The investigation focused on areas such as: The procedures for gathering information required when entering into a relationship. The administration of the client questionnaire under MiFIR ( Regulation (EU) 600/2014 ), used to better understand investors. The impact of systems on investor profiling and client protection. During its inspections, the AMF identified several areas of weakness and encourages investment firms wishing to develop their online or app-based investment services to be vigilant in four areas: Providing comprehensive, easy-to-read information to clients - the AMF found that some essential information, such as the nature of the services offered online, was presented in an incomplete or difficult-to-understand manner. Strengthening the robustness of client questionnaires - the AMF found that systems used to assess investor profiles varied considerably, with certain information-gathering practices limiting the reliability of the process for assessing the suitability of envisaged financial products for investors' profiles. Improving the effectiveness of warnings -  the AMF found that warning messages about inappropriate products are sometimes ambiguous. Adapting control systems - the AMF found that, at the institutions inspected, internal controls remain insufficiently attuned to the specific features of digital client journeys, despite the fact that the autonomy enjoyed by online clients is a major risk. Among the good practices, the AMF identified: Having a client questionnaire composed of questions relating to specific financial instruments rather than a general category of financial instruments. Setting an expiry date for questionnaires and requiring customers to update them as part of the order reception and transmission process. Producing statistics on the completion and updating of online questionnaires. Demonstrating digital journeys within certain governance structures. Conversely, the AMF identified poor practices, such as: Having a client questionnaire with a small number of questions relating to complex financial instruments and insufficient granularity when distributing these instruments. Having a client questionnaire to which clients mainly have to answer "yes" or "no". Allowing clients to update their questionnaire as often as they like, without waiting a minimum period between updates.

On April 24, 2026, the Bank of Italy announced it had confirmed the systemic risk buffer (SyRB) requirement for all banks authorised in Italy, which will be maintained at 1.0 percent. The Bank of Italy established the SyRB requirement in April 2024 to strengthen the Italian banking system's capacity to withstand adverse events independent of economic and financial cycles.  The confirmation follows the Bank of Italy's biennial review of the buffer level, as required under regulatory provisions. The buffer remains an important tool for maintaining systemic stability; if adverse events occur, the Bank of Italy may release the buffer to provide banks with resources to absorb losses and sustain credit supply to the economy. The Bank of Italy will continue to review the SyRB level at least every two years, or sooner if circumstances require.

On April 27, 2026, the Central Bank of Russia (CBR) published an overview of banking regulation initiatives, outlining planned regulatory developments and recently implemented measures for the financial sector. The CBR plans to publish, for a regulatory impact assessment (RIA) in the second quarter of 2026, proposals to strengthen requirements for capital sources and their transparency. For RIA purposes, the CBR will introduce innovations in credit risk assessment when calculating capital adequacy and concentration ratios. Banks will be permitted to apply reduced risk weights when financing state-private partnership projects. Additionally, the CBR will present a new concept for regulating credit concentration risk.

On April 24, 2026, the US Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) published an interim final rule and interim final order preempting the Illinois Interchange Fee Prohibition Act (IFPA) relative to its application to OCC-supervised banks. The IFPA, which is set to take effect on July 1, 2026, would ban banks from charging or receiving interchange fees in Illinois on the portion of a debit or credit card transaction attributable to tax or gratuity. According to the OCC , the IFPA would create “a complex, potentially unworkable and destabilizing standard for national banks, federal savings associations and the nation’s payment card systems”, adding that the “effects could be exacerbated to the extent other states impose similarly unworkable or conflicting standards”. The OCC's interim final rule confirms powers under federal law for national banks to charge certain fees, regardless of whether those fees are set by the bank or a third party. The OCC’s interim final order further confirms that federal law preempts the IFPA, expressly providing that national banks are neither subject to nor required to comply with the IFPA. Interested parties may submit comments on both interim final actions until May 27, 2026 at this link .

On April 24, 2026, the Swedish Gambling Authority (Spelinspektionen) issued a remark to Skebobruks Kulturförening following an inspection of its website where it operates lottery games through bokstavslotteriet.se . The inspection identified multiple deficiencies in the operator's compliance with player protection and information disclosure requirements. Skebobruks Kulturförening failed to display age restriction information on its website, which is a mandatory requirement under Swedish gambling regulations governing responsible gambling and information obligations. The operator's website lacked clear indication of age limits for participation in games offered on the platform. The remark represents an enforcement action by Spelinspektionen to address these compliance gaps. The entity has been directed to remedy the identified deficiencies to align with Sweden's regulatory framework for responsible gambling and player information disclosure, by implementing corrective measures to ensure its website displays all required responsible gambling information, including age restrictions, in accordance with applicable Swedish gambling regulations.

The China Securities Regulatory Commission (CSRC) his seeking feedback on its draft measures for the determination of illegal gains in administrative penalty cases by the CSRC. The draft measures prescribe: Definition and general principles defining illegal gains as the benefits obtained or losses avoided through illegal securities and futures acts. It mandates that calculations must be objective, fair, and in accordance with market logic and common sense. For joint violations, the total benefit or avoided loss of the overall act is considered the illegal gain. Furthermore, profits and losses from separate, independent violations cannot be offset against each other. Calculation of trading violations stipulating that illegal gains include price differences from buying/selling securities or contracts, dividends from illegally held securities, and other direct economic benefits. Deductible expenses include the cost of buying securities or opening contracts, as well as direct transaction taxes and fees like stamp duty and commissions. However, costs for borrowing funds or accounts, or expenses for equipment and personnel to commit the violation, cannot be deducted. Cost matching and valuation methods detailing that the cost of illegally bought securities or opened contracts is matched on a first-in, first-out basis when sold or closed, except for insider trading, which uses a last-in, first-out method. The rules specify valuation methods for unsold securities based on average closing prices over five trading days following the opening of price limit boards (for insider trading), the end of market manipulation, or the end of other illegal acts. Specific violation calculations outlining how to calculate gains or avoided losses for specific acts. Avoided losses in insider trading are calculated as the difference between the sale amount and a benchmark value based on post-disclosure prices. For securities transferred during a restricted period, the gain is the difference between the sale amount and the benchmark value on the first trading day after the restriction ends. The measures also cover illegal gains from trading on undisclosed information , illegal underwriting by brokerages, fabricating false information, and illegal acts by institutions and their personnel, such as illegally providing margin trading services or privately accepting client commissions. Feedback may be submitted via post or by email to cfwzhc@csrc.gov.cn by May 17, 2026.

The China Securities Regulatory Commission (CSRC) is seeking feedback on its draft measures for the supervision and administration of futures companies. The draft measures prescribe: Establishment and capital requirements including a mandate that companies engaging in domestic futures brokerage maintain a minimum registered capital of RMB100,000,000  (US$14,000,000) , requiring a minimum of RMB200,000,000  (US$28,000,000) for those adding trading consulting services, stipulating that companies engaging in one trading-class business such as market making or asset management maintain RMB500,000,000 (US$70,000,000) while those with two or more trading-class businesses maintain RMB1,000,000,000 (US$140,000,000) , and requiring that major shareholders hold net assets of at least RMB200,000,000 (US$28,000,000) while controlling shareholders hold at least RMB1,000,000,000 (US$140,000,000). Corporate governance and internal control frameworks requiring the establishment of a board of directors, an audit committee or supervisory board , and a Chief Risk Officer (CRO), and stipulating that a single entity cannot control more than one futures company or hold a 5 percent or greater stake in more than two futures companies. Business and operational rules including mandating real-name account registration and closed-loop management of client margins for brokerage services, requiring market makers to provide genuine liquidity through continuous two-way quotes, and strictly prohibiting futures asset management plans from investing in unlisted stocks, equity, or non-standardized debt assets. Information technology and data retention obligations requiring futures companies to establish comprehensive IT management systems with direct control over client trading directives, and mandating that client information and related records be retained for no less than 20 years after the termination of services. Supervision, reporting, and penalty mechanisms including a requirement to submit monthly and audited annual reports to the regional regulatory authorities , mandating that major risk events or legal issues be reported within five working days, and establishing fines of up to RMB100,000 (US$14,000) for companies and RMB50,000 (US$7,000) for directly responsible individuals for specific regulatory violations Feedback may be submitted via post or by email to qihuobu@csrc.gov.cn by May 17, 2026.

On April 23, 2026, the Bank of Italy (Banca d'Italia) published a notice of its administrative monetary penalty of €130,000 on Banca Popolare Pugliese for deficiencies in anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing (AML/CTF) controls. Following inspections conducted between September 2, 2024 and December 13, 2024, the Bank of Italy identified significant irregularities in the bank's organisation, procedures, and internal controls. The deficiencies specifically related to customer profiling processes, customer due diligence, and active cooperation obligations under Legislative Decree 231/2007 (implementing the fourth and fifth Anti-Money Laundering Directives). The violations also encompassed failures to comply with the Bank of Italy's provisions on internal organisation, procedures and controls to prevent money laundering and terrorism financing , and provisions on customer due diligence for combating money laundering and terrorism financing . Banca Popolare Pugliese submitted observations during the proceedings, which the Bank of Italy determined were insufficient to overcome the proposed sanction. The penalty was imposed under Article 62 of Legislative Decree 231/2007, taking into account the scope of the irregularities identified and corrective actions undertaken by the bank.

On April 23, 2026, Norway's Financial Supervisory Authority (FSA) published a supervision report following an examination of BN Bank ASA. The supervision covered the bank's credit risk management, loss provisions calculations under International Financial Reporting Standard 9 (IFRS 9), and capital requirements for credit risk using the Internal Ratings-Based (IRB) method. The FSA identified several findings requiring attention. The authority noted concerns regarding the bank's risk profile and credit practices, including high concentration exposure to commercial real estate, weaknesses in credit and valuation assessments, and deficiencies in the application and validation of Expected Credit Loss (ECL) and IRB models. The FSA has requested that the bank submit a report on implemented measures with status updates or alternatively action plans where measures have not yet been implemented by October 1, 2026.

Norway's Financial Supervisory Authority (FSA) announced its application of the European Banking Authority’s (EBA) Guidelines on environmental scenario analysis (EBA/GL/2025/04). The guidelines provide direction on how financial institutions should use scenario analysis to assess resilience against environment-related risks, particularly climate risk, including both physical and transitional risks related to climate change. The guidelines establish a framework for financial institutions to test their resilience against environmental risks through scenario analysis. The guidelines will come into force on January 1, 2027. The FSA expects all financial institutions operating in Norway to comply with the guidelines upon this date.

On April 23, 2026, the European Commission announced the adoption by EU member states of the 20th package of sanctions against Russia. The comprehensive package includes measures spanning energy, financial services, trade and media, with a particular focus on anti-circumvention mechanisms. Financial measures extend the ban on EU operators conducting business with 20 additional Russian banks, bringing the total excluded from the EU internal market to 70. The package introduces a sectorial ban on exchanges with Russian crypto-asset service providers and decentralised trading platforms, and prohibits use of RUBx (a rouble-backed stablecoin) and the digital rouble. Payment services restrictions target agents facilitating international transactions bypassing sanctions. Alongside the new financial measures, the European Council has also delisted five third-country financial entities following the receipt of commitments that those entities will not engage in the activities for which they were listed. The following acts were published: Council Decision (CFSP) 2026/508 * Council Regulation (EU) 2026/506 * Council Decision (CFSP) 2026/504 Council Implementing Regulation (EU) 2026/509 Council Regulation (EU) 2026/511 Council Implementing Decision (CFSP) 2026/503 Council Implementing Regulation (EU) 2026/505 The decisions and regulations enter into force on April 23, 2026 on the date of their publication, except those those that will enter into force on the April 24, 2026, one day after publication*.

On April 24, 2026, the Central Bank of the Russian Federation adopted the Decision of the Board of Directors of the Bank of Russia on the Specifics of Applying Bank of Russia Regulation No.646-P of July 4, 2018 in Relation to Subordinated Bonds. The decision provides that, when subordinated bonds in rubles are included in the sources of own funds (capital) of banks, certain requirements of subparagraphs 3.1.8.3.1 of paragraph 3 of Regulation No.646-P shall not apply. In the event of termination or early termination by banks of obligations under subordinated bonds in foreign currency, where less than five years have passed from the date of inclusion in the sources of equity funds (capital), certain requirements of subparagraphs 3.1.8.1.2 and 3.1.8.4 shall not apply. For the purposes of applying specified provisions of Regulation No.646-P, the calculation of the maturity date, early redemption and residual value of subordinated bonds in rubles is carried out from the date of inclusion of subordinated bonds in foreign currency in the sources of equity funds (capital). The maximum interest rate for subordinated bonds in rubles is established by paragraph 1 of the Decision of the Board or Directors of the Bank of Russia dated December 19, 2025. This decision shall apply from the date of its publication on the official website of the Central Bank of Russia, being April 27, 2026 until December 31, 2026.

On 27 March 2026, the Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC) launched a consultation on proposed amendments to the ASIC Derivative Transaction Rules (Reporting) 2024 (2024 Reporting Rules). The proposed amendments respond to industry requests for practical improvements, simplify reporting requirements, and support alignment with international data standards and the reporting frameworks of other major jurisdictions. The targeted changes aim to improve data quality reported to ASIC for regulatory purposes. Key proposed amendments include: Adding provisions for reporting additional information to support Derivative Trade Repository data handling requirements. Clarifying constraints in ISO 20022 base messages Expanding the definition of 'alphanumeric' format to include special characters Introducing new data elements including 'Execution agent of Counterparty 2', 'Leverage ratio', and 'Subsequent position UTI' Adding schedule information data elements for notional quantity, price, strike price and barrier price Introducing barrier type and barrier exercise style data elements Clarifying that 'Other payment' includes monetary value transfers; adopting standardised underlier identification from the December 2025 update to international Critical Data Elements guidance; and adding 'EROR' as an Action type for collateral reporting. Subject to ministerial consent, the amendments are proposed to commence on 1 March 2027. The original feedback deadline of 8 May 2026 was extended to 22 May 2026 in response to industry requests. Submissions should be sent to otcd@asic.gov.au by 5pm (AEST) on 22 May 2026. Clarifying that 'Other payment' includes monetary value transfers; adopting standardised underlier identification from the December 2025 update to international Critical Data Elements guidance; and adding 'EROR' as an Action type for collateral reporting. Subject to ministerial consent, the amendments are proposed to commence on 1 March 2027. The original feedback deadline of 8 May 2026 was extended to 22 May 2026 in response to industry requests. Submissions should be sent to otcd@asic.gov.au by 5pm (AEST) on 22 May 2026.

On April 23, 2026, the Malta Financial Services Authority (MFSA) published guidance to support financial entities and threat-led penetration testing (TLPT) providers in developing codes of conduct in accordance with the Digital Operational Resilience Act ( Regulation (EU) 2022/2554 - DORA) and Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1190 . The MFSA has been designated as the TLPT authority for Malta under DORA. According to Article 27 of DORA, financial entities identified as requiring advanced testing through TLPT must use testers who are certified by an accreditation body or adhere to formal codes of conduct or ethical frameworks, and this must be done at least every three years. This requirement applies to both internal and external testers, as well as threat intelligence providers. The MFSA has developed the "TLPT Codes of Conduct Guidance Document", which provides recommendations and best practices for creating codes of conduct based on the European Threat Intelligence-Based Ethical Red Teaming (TIBER-EU) framework. The guidance applies to TLPT providers, including ICT third-party service providers contracted as external testers and threat intelligence providers, as well as to financial entities when selecting internal testers. It addresses both individuals and organisations responsible for providing or staffing testers and threat intelligence providers. Financial entities licensed by the MFSA, testers and threat intelligence providers are strongly encouraged to review the guidance document.

On April 24, 2026, the Slovenian Securities Market Agency (ATVP) signed a cooperation agreement on harmonised regulation and supervision of capital markets with regulatory authorities from eight countries across central and south-eastern Europe: Croatia, Slovakia, Poland, Bulgaria, Romania, Hungary, and North Macedonia. The agreement implements commitments made under a memorandum of understanding on regional capital market integration signed in Zagreb in 2025 by the nations. The cooperation agreement establishes a framework for coordinated regulatory approaches across participating jurisdictions, with a primary focus on harmonising regulatory environments through analysis and alignment of rules governing licensing, disclosure requirements and market supervision. The regulators aim to identify regulatory and supervisory gaps and implement activities to harmonise capital market regulations across the region. The agreement is designed to facilitate cross-border capital flows and strengthen the collective negotiating position of these countries in European regulatory initiatives, ensuring that regional market characteristics and interests are appropriately considered in European legislation. By coordinating their approach to European regulatory developments, the signatory states aim to preserve and develop capital markets in the region more effectively than individual countries could achieve independently. The cooperation framework will be supported through regular meetings and coordination activities between the participating regulatory authorities, building on existing collaborative relationships among the supervisors.

On April 21, 2026, Finland's Ministry of the Interior established a legislative project to prepare amendments to the Lotteries Act and the Gambling Act to enable scratch cards to be given as gifts. The project will run until December 31, 2026. Scratch cards were brought under mandatory identification requirements at the beginning of 2024. Following this change, only the buyer of a scratch card could claim any winnings, preventing the purchase of scratch cards as gifts. The legislative project aims to amend this restriction while maintaining consumer protections. Under the proposed amendments, the buyer of a scratch card would continue to be required to be a registered customer of Veikkaus Oy, and identification would be required when purchasing a card. However, any winnings in a scratch card could be claimed by a person other than the buyer, and registration would not be required for claiming winnings. Both the purchase of a scratch card and the claiming of any winnings would require the person concerned to have reached 18 years of age to prevent gambling by minors. A more detailed implementation method will be assessed during the legislative project. The legislative project was initiated following a feasibility study completed by the Ministry of the Interior in January 2026. The study examined existing legislation, the prevalence of playing scratch cards, and alternative models for legislative amendments and their impacts. The study concluded that enabling instant money lottery tickets to be given as gifts would require amendments to both the Lotteries Act and the Gambling Act. The Government proposal is scheduled to be submitted to Parliament during the autumn session of 2026.

On April 20, 2026, Finland's Ministry of the Interior established a legislative project to amend the Lottery Act (1047/2001) and the Gambling Act (10/2026) concerning the redemption of winnings from rapid-draw lottery tickets (raaputusarvat). The project aims to enable the gifting of rapid-draw lottery tickets by allowing individuals other than the ticket purchaser to claim winnings, while maintaining consumer protections. Under the proposed framework, ticket purchasers must remain registered Veikkaus Oy customers and purchase tickets while authenticated. However, winnings redemption would be permitted by persons other than the original purchaser, provided they are of legal age to prevent minors from gambling. The purchaser's authentication requirement would not apply to the person redeeming the prize. This legislative initiative follows a parliamentary administrative committee recommendation in response to government proposal HE 16/2025 concerning gambling system reforms. The committee requested that the government investigate rapid-draw lottery gifting possibilities and implement necessary legislative measures. The Ministry of the Interior published a preliminary investigation on April 20, 2026, examining alternative legislative models and their impacts, including regulatory analysis, product characteristics, gambling harms, marketing considerations, and tax implications. The investigation also included European Union internal market and competition law assessments alongside international comparisons. The legislative project is scheduled to run from April 20, 2026, to December 31, 2026. Jukka Tukia, Counsellor at the Ministry of the Interior, serves as the project contact. The project will proceed through consultation procedures, further preparation, government decision-making, and parliamentary review before final legislative enactment.

On April 21, 2026, Finland's Ministry of The Interior announced the establishment of a legislation project to amend the Lottery Act and Gambling Act to permit scratch lottery tickets to be given as gifts. The project, which will conclude on December 31, 2026, addresses a regulatory constraint introduced at the beginning of 2024. When mandatory player identification requirements were implemented for scratch lottery tickets, the legislation inadvertently prevented anyone other than the purchaser from redeeming winnings, which effectively prohibited gifting scratch lottery tickets. The Ministry of The Interior's project aims to resolve this issue by enabling prize redemption by persons other than the ticket purchaser, while maintaining mandatory player identification and registration requirements for the initial purchaser through Veikkaus Ab, Finland's state-owned gambling operator. Prize redemption will not require registration, though both the purchaser and prize redeemer must be adults to prevent minors from participating in gambling activities. The project follows a preliminary study completed in January 2026, which examined the current legislative framework and identified necessary amendments to both the Lottery Act and Gambling Act. The study evaluated alternative legislative models and assessed their consequences. The Parliament's Administrative Committee had previously recommended that the government explore options for permitting scratch lottery gifting as part of the broader gambling system reform. The Ministry of The Interior intends to submit a legislative proposal to Parliament during the autumn session of 2026. Further information is available from Katriina Laitinen, legislation director, or Jukka Tukia, advisory official, at the Ministry of The Interior.

On April 22, 2026, Ukraine's PlayCity Agency (the state gambling regulator) issued Decision No. 141-Р imposing financial sanctions against FAVBET Games Slots LLC (ТОВ "ФАВБЕТ ГЕЙМС СЛОТС") following a scheduled inspection. The decision documents the results of a planned regulatory inspection conducted by the PlayCity Agency and outlines the application of financial penalties to the operator. The sanctions were issued in response to findings identified during the inspection process. The specific violations and penalty amounts are detailed in the decision document, which was published on the PlayCity Agency's official website on April 22, 2026. This enforcement action reflects the PlayCity Agency's ongoing regulatory oversight of gambling operators licensed to conduct gaming activities in Ukraine. The agency conducts scheduled inspections as part of its state supervision mandate to ensure compliance with applicable gambling legislation and regulations. The full decision is available in PDF format on the PlayCity Agency's official website. **Reference:** PlayCity Agency Decision No. 141-Р (April 22, 2026)

On April 22, 2026, Ukraine's State Agency for Gambling and Lotteries Control (PlayCity) revoked the online casino licence of LLC Spaceyx, operating under the brand Cosmolot, following a regulatory inspection that identified breaches of payment settlement requirements. The licence revocation was triggered by the operator's use of peer-to-peer (P2P) payments and acceptance of deposits from third-party bank cards, both in violation of Ukrainian gambling legislation. In addition to the licence termination, PlayCity imposed financial sanctions totalling 12.9 million Ukrainian hryvnia (UAH): 8.6 million UAH for conducting settlements using P2P payments, and 4.3 million UAH for permitting account top-ups from third-party bank cards. Hennadii Novikov, head of PlayCity, stated that the agency's mandate is to ensure consistent and transparent oversight of licensees to maintain uniform market rules for all participants. Under the Law of Ukraine "On State Regulation of Activities Related to the Organisation and Conduct of Gambling," PlayCity is empowered to impose financial sanctions on licensees for regulatory breaches, with licence revocation available for material violations. Aleksandr Bornyakov, acting minister of digital transformation, noted that the Ministry of Digital Transformation has developed amendments to the primary gambling legislation to strengthen regulatory oversight, particularly regarding betting stakes and enhanced vetting requirements for gambling operators. These developments reflect Ukraine's ongoing efforts to tighten gambling market regulation following the sector's liberalisation and the establishment of PlayCity as the regulatory authority.

On April 22, 2026, Ukraine's PlayCity Agency (Державне агентство з контролю сфери азартних ігор та лотерей) issued Decision No. 139-Р terminating the online casino gambling licence held by limited liability company SPACEYX (ТОВ «СПЕЙСИКС»). The decision revokes SPACEYX's authorisation to organise and conduct casino gambling activities over the internet. The termination became effective upon publication of the decision on April 22, 2026. This action represents enforcement of Ukraine's regulatory framework governing online gambling operations, which fall under PlayCity Agency's supervisory jurisdiction. The agency maintains oversight of gambling and lottery activities across Ukraine's regulated market. The decision has been published on PlayCity Agency's official website and is available in PDF format for public access. Operators and market participants should note this licence termination when assessing the current landscape of authorised online casino providers in Ukraine. **Reference:** PlayCity Agency Decision No. 139-Р (April 22, 2026) — Termination of SPACEYX's online casino licence

On April 22, 2026, Ukraine's PlayCity Agency (the State Agency for Gambling and Lotteries Control) issued Decision No. 142-Р imposing financial sanctions against limited liability company Spaceyx following an unscheduled remote inspection. The decision outlines the results of the unannounced compliance review and details the financial penalties applied to the operator. PlayCity Agency conducted the inspection as part of its regulatory oversight responsibilities in the gambling and lotteries sector. The agency identified violations during the inspection that warranted the imposition of sanctions in accordance with applicable Ukrainian gambling regulations. The full details of the violations identified and the specific financial penalties imposed are contained within the decision document, which was published on the PlayCity Agency's official website on April 22, 2026. The decision is available for download in PDF format from the agency's regulatory documents section. This enforcement action reflects PlayCity Agency's continued monitoring and compliance activities within Ukraine's regulated gambling market. Operators are required to adhere to all applicable regulatory requirements, and the agency maintains authority to conduct inspections and apply sanctions where violations are identified. REFERENCE: PlayCity Agency Decision No. 142-Р of April 22, 2026 on the Results of Unscheduled Remote Inspection and Application of Financial Sanctions to LLC "Spaceyx" — available at the State Agency for Gambling and Lotteries Control official website.

On April 22, 2026, Ukraine's PlayCity Agency (the State Agency for Gambling and Lotteries Control) issued Decision No. 140-Р terminating the gaming licence held by FAVBET GAME SLOTS Limited Liability Company (TOV "FAVBET GEIM SLOTS"). The decision revokes the operator's licence to conduct gambling activities in gaming machine halls. The termination of the licence represents an enforcement action by the Ukrainian gambling regulator against the operator. This decision reflects PlayCity Agency's regulatory oversight of the gaming machine sector in Ukraine, which operates under the agency's licensing and supervisory framework. Gaming machine hall operators in Ukraine are required to maintain valid licences issued by PlayCity Agency to legally conduct gambling activities. The decision has been published on PlayCity Agency's official website and is available for download in PDF format. Operators and stakeholders should review the full decision document for specific details regarding the effective date of the licence termination and any transitional provisions that may apply to FAVBET GAME SLOTS' operations.